In the previous post we saw why primes are so important, and used Euclid’s proof to show that there are infinitely many primes. We further conjectured that not only there are infinitely many primes, they are also “nicely” distributed among the integers.
More precisely, if we fix some integer , then for every
we can ask how many primes
are there such that
. If
and
are not coprime, then we showed that there is either zero or one such primes, so the infinitely many primes that we already know exist are equivalent to
mod
where the
are coprime to
. The conjecture was that not only the union over these
is infinite, but for each
the number of primes is infinite (which is Dirichlet’s theorem for primes in arithmetic progression), and more over, in a sense we have “the same” infinite in each of those
. While we could generalize a bit Euclid’s proof to some other cases, it becomes really complicated quite fast.
Trying to look for other methods, we mix our prime numbers with a bit of calculus, and turn to Euler for some help.
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